Self-check cards

Question, then answer. Use these to test recall after each tier.

The baseline language of the chart

Vitals & Labs

A patient is tachycardic at 118 with BP 92/58. What does this combo most suggest?

Hint: Think about what the heart does before pressure drops.

Compensated shock: the heart speeds up to preserve cardiac output before the blood pressure falls. Treat tachycardia with borderline-low BP as early shock until proven otherwise.

Why is a normal vital sign not proof of health?

Because the body compensates. It works hard to keep numbers normal until it can no longer keep up, so a normal reading can coexist with a serious hidden process.

Which vital sign is often the earliest warning of a brewing problem?

Tachycardia (rising heart rate). The heart accelerates early to preserve cardiac output, making it one of the first and most reliable signals.

What does a high white-cell count with a neutrophil predominance suggest?

Bacterial infection or inflammation. Neutrophilia is the classic response to bacterial infection.

What does eosinophilia raise on the differential?

Allergy, parasite, or drug reaction. Eosinophils rise in these settings.

Why does the team read labs as trajectories, not snapshots?

A single number is a photograph; a series is a movie. A platelet count falling from 200 to 60 over two days is an emergency, while a single low value is just a data point.

What does a high anion gap metabolic acidosis point toward?

An unmeasured acid: toxic ingestion, ketoacidosis, or lactic acidosis. It is a launchpad for the differential because something is producing acid the body cannot clear.

What the drugs actually do

Pharmacology

How do benzodiazepines work at the GABA-A receptor?

Hint: They make the brake pedal work harder.

They bind an allosteric site and enhance the effect of GABA, boosting chloride influx and neuronal inhibition. They do not open the channel directly.

Why are benzodiazepines dangerous with alcohol or opioids?

All three depress the CNS. The additive braking can suppress breathing to a dangerous degree (respiratory failure).

What is a first-line use of benzodiazepines?

Acute seizures and severe alcohol withdrawal, where rapid CNS inhibition protects against excitotoxicity and autonomic instability.

What is the mechanism by which beta-blockers calm the heart?

They block beta-1 adrenergic receptors, blunting the effects of adrenaline on heart rate and contractility - slowing it, steadying it, and reducing oxygen demand.

Why must beta-blockers not be stopped abruptly after chronic use?

Rebound tachycardia and angina (and even acute coronary events) can occur as the sympathetic system suddenly loses its brake.

How do thrombolytics (clot-busters) work?

They convert plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades the fibrin mesh of a clot - reopening the blocked vessel. Time is brain (stroke), time is muscle (heart attack).

What is the main risk of thrombolysis?

Serious bleeding, including intracranial hemorrhage. It is used only when reopening the vessel outweighs the bleeding risk.

What is the trade-off of corticosteroids?

Powerful anti-inflammation (asthma, autoimmune flares, brain swelling) but immunosuppression, raised blood sugar and pressure, bone loss over time, and a need to taper to avoid adrenal crisis.

How the team thinks

Diagnostic Method

What is Occam's razor in diagnosis?

Hint: Favor a single explanation when one fits everything.

The simplest explanation that accounts for all the findings is usually correct - one unifying diagnosis rather than many separate ones.

What is Hickam's dictum?

The patient can have as many diseases as they please - sometimes several separate conditions coexist, especially in older patients with chronic disease. It is the counter to Occam.

What is premature closure in diagnosis?

Settling on a diagnosis before all the evidence is in and ignoring findings that do not fit. It is a leading cause of diagnostic error.

Why does the team distrust the 'obvious' answer?

Because an obvious, wrong diagnosis is a classic false lead. When treatment based on the obvious answer fails, the team re-opens the differential.

How does a failed empirical treatment become a diagnostic test?

If broad therapy (e.g., antibiotics or steroids) does not improve the patient, the team concludes the cause is not what the therapy targets - narrowing the hunt.

Getting answers from inside

Procedures

What does a lumbar puncture (spinal tap) sample?

Hint: The fluid around the brain and cord.

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) bathing the brain and spinal cord - the definitive test for meningitis and a key tool for hemorrhage, inflammation, and CNS malignancy.

High CSF white cells, low glucose, and high protein suggest what?

Bacterial meningitis. This classic CSF triad points to bacterial infection of the meninges.

CSF red cells that do not clear between tubes suggest what?

Subarachnoid hemorrhage (bleeding into the space around the brain).

Why is a biopsy the definitive test for many diseases?

Because it examines the tissue itself rather than chemical footprints - directly confirming cancer, autoimmune inflammation, infection, or deposition disease.

Why is a negative biopsy not proof of the absence of disease?

Sampling can miss the affected area, so a negative result does not always rule out the condition.

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